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Response to Eagle Star v Green & Challis case

from Melody (mbc109@york.ac.uk)
Thanks - I've now read through the report. In case anyone else is interested, the gist of it is that the failure of either party to sign the mortgage deed is irrelevant, and you don't need a separate mortgage contract either. So if I've understood it correctly, you (and your friendly lender) don't actually have to sign anything at all legally to have a mortgage in place against your home. Can this be right? (It certainly seems to have been the case for me.)
(posted 8025 days ago)

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