If there are no mortgage deeds retained on a client's file(according to their solicitor) does a shortfall exist? Can an argument in court exist without a document,despite all the wrangles of the solicitors of shortfalls,debts,outstanding MIG's etc and whatever they produce,how can the judiciary favour the lender without documentation??? Where's the contract?

-- (nomortgagedeeds@aol.com), September 13, 2001

Answers

Yes you are correct,other wise any body could acuse any other person of a debt.theyMUST have documented proof see other q/as in this section.

-- roger watts (rwatts.homeloans@virgin.net), September 16, 2001.