Sith and Since

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All right, why does Will use "sith" (Sith I have cause and will and strength...") in one place and "since" (Since he went into France...) in another?

Casey P.S. - sorry if the quotes aren't exact, working from memory, here.

-- Casey (mikken@neo.rr.com), June 28, 2002

Answers

Hi there Casey. I think I read somewhere that around 1600, when WS was writing, 'sith' was in the process of changing to 'since'. Ie, the English language was still developing and sith was the older form and since the newer form. WS still liked to use sith; and when you're speaking the stuff, sith does actually feel and sound better where he has used it: it's faster and crisper, whereas since is more measured. WS the genius at work again.

Cheers, Catherine.

-- catherine england (catherine_england@hotmail.com), June 30, 2002.


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