I am currently in a relationship with divorced anglican man. I am a practising catholic and have never been married. His first marriage was a civil service and conducted by a justice of the peace. His ex-wife is jewish but has never been baptised. Does this mean his first marriage is invalid in the eyes of the catholic church?

If he was married in the eyes of god, would he have grounds for annulment because his ex wife has not been baptised?

I would really appreciate any advise you could give me. I want to go see my local priest but I want to gather as much information before I do this. Thank you.

-- martina (martinadunphy@hotmail.com), January 12, 2005

Answers

-- (bump@bump.bump), January 12, 2005.